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The OT is not functionally unitarian

Christian revelation cannot be functionally unitarian

God simply is trinity

Functional unitarianism can in no sense be a preparation for trinitarianism

The oneness of the triune God is nothing like the oneness of the unitarian god.

Trinity is not a nuance

There is no way to shove 'Trinity' in a corner while we discuss 'God'

Whatever 'God' we discuss at that point ceases to be the living God.

Jesus is not the cherry on top - He's the Rock, the Foundation

Jesus cannot be fitted into a pre-existing system but must from the outset define all things.

Jesus is not the Seal of a series of improving revelations - He is THE Word.

There is no concept of mediation which Jesus then fulfils.  There is only The Mediator who mediates. 

Mediation is by definition two-way.  If the Mediator of knowledge is Himself unknown, mediation is not happening.

Knowing Jesus is essential.

'Progress towards Jesus' is not the unifying concept of the bible

Jesus Himself is the unifying Person of the bible.

Strictly the Person of Jesus is the object of saving faith, not the promises.  Christ always comes clothed in the promises, but trust in the clothes doesn't save.

That'll do for now...

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I've been involved in a blog discussion about the Angel of the LORD. 94 comments and still going strong. 

I'd like to clarify a couple of things about the Angel of the LORD:

The Angel of the LORD is not by any means the only title under which Christ appears in the OT.  He also appears simply as 'the LORD' or as 'the Word of the LORD' or 'the Commander of the LORD's host'.  Christ has many names.

I don't believe that actual appearances are the only meaningful ways of talking about Christ in the OT (there's also the promises and types).

When you hear "Angel" don't automatically think 'creature'.  Literally the name means 'Sent One' and it has come to mean 'Messenger' (good titles for Christ!)

There are lots of other angels in Scripture.  But just as there are many 'sent ones' from God - THE ONE Sent from God is a divine title.

Now.  Why bother talking about Him?

Let me just give one reason for now (I speak at great length here on the subject):

When you realize that both OT authors and OT saints appreciated the divine identity of the Angel it forces you to rethink a kind of default unitarianism innate to much of our OT understanding.  Once you know that the Angel is both of the LORD and is the LORD, He is from God and is God, distinct and divine, you see that OT saints did have a conceptual framework which allowed for conscious faith in the distinct Person of the Sent Mediator.

If that all sounds like jargon, later on I'll post something much simpler.

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Tim Challies has quoted a pithy saying of Ligon Duncan's:

Hell is eternity in the presence of God without a mediator.

Heaven is eternity in the presence of God, with a mediator.

What do we reckon?

Here's what's great about it.  It affirms that our experience of eternity hinges on our relationship to the Mediator.  It also affirms that God is not absent from hell.  Both those things are true and worth lifting up.

But I think there are better ways of saying such things.  Here's what's unhelpful about it:

  1. In terms of our doctrine of God - what sense can be made of 'God without a Mediator'?  Trinity means that mediation goes way back.  WAY back.  And WAY forwards.  1 Corinthians 8:6 - all things have always been from the Father and through the Lord Jesus.  All things.  And all things always will be.  Who is this God who is without His Mediator. I simply can't recognize 'God without a mediator' as the Christian God.
  2. In terms of our christology - does this sentiment give Christ His due?It could lead people to suppose that Christ is simply the wrath-averter.  Now of course He is the wrath-averter.  And if He was only the wrath-averter we would still praise Him into eternity for it.  But He is far more than this.  He is the Mediator of all the Father's business.  Christ does not exist for our benefit - we exist for His.  The saying above could be easily misconstrued to mean that the Mediator is extremely important for us - but not so important for God.  No.  He is essential to the divine life before we ever consider His importance for us. 
  3. In terms of Scripture - 2 Thes 1:9 "Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power." (KJV)  There's a translation issue about the preposition ('apo').  Should it be translated 'from' or 'away from'?  I favour 'from' - ie implying that Christ is present in judgement.  This goes with Revelation 14:10 where the damned are tormented in the presence of the Lamb.  See also Rev 1:18 where Jesus is presented as the Jailor of death and hades, and Rev 6:16-17 where it's the wrath of the Father together with the Lamb.  Jesus expressly says in John 5:22 that the Father has entrusted all judgement to Him. 

What does this mean?  It means that hell is being in the presence of God who continues to mediate His judgement through the Son.  There is no such thing as 'God without a mediator'. 

I've got some more to say on this, but I'll wait for another post... 

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From a random internet sermon I listened to this evening:

God does not react.  He cannot react. God is pure initiation.  He only leads.

Where has this assumption come from?  Not trinitarian reflection.

Where does it lead?  Philosophical determinism.

What would it look like to begin with the living God Who initiates and responds, Who leads and follows?

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Ron Frost fans (this blog has quite a few), meet Mike Reeves. 

Mike Reeves fans (this blog has many), meet Ron Frost.

Here two of my favourite living theologians discuss one of my favourite dead ones - Richard Sibbes. 

sibbes

Joy!!

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This is a repost of Theology - the end of the process??

Is “systematic theology... the end process of exegesis and biblical theology"??  Ben Myers writes brilliantly against such a conception.  To imagine that a pure biblical scholar can dispassionately read off the meaning of the Bible through the use of objective interpretive tools is ludicrous.  To imagine that then the systematic theologian comes to co-ordinate these propositions into a logically cogent order is similarly misguided.  As Myers says 'It's theology all the way down.'  Theological pre-suppositions and commitments necessarily guide and shape all Christian activity from exegesis to exposition to pastoral work, to evangelism to hospitality to everything.

And yet the idea that the Bible can be neutrally read is so tempting.  We would love to conceive of revelation as propositions deposited in a handy compendium simply to be extracted and applied.  Yet the Word is a Person.  And His book is Personal (John 5:39).  It's not something we judge with our double edged swords - the Word judges us. (Heb 4:12)

Now Jesus thought the Scriptures were absolutely clear.  He never made excuses for theological error.  He never gave even the slightest bit of latitude by conceding a certain obscurity to the Bible.  He never assumes that His theological opponents have just mis-applied an interpretive paradigm.  If they get it wrong He assumes they've never read the Scriptures (e.g. Matt 21:16,42; Mark 2:25)!  So the perspicuity of the Bible is not in dispute. 

But Jesus tells the Pharisees why they get it wrong - "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God." (Matt 22:29)  And, again, "You diligently study the Scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the Scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to come to me to have life." (John 5:39-40)  They are wrongly oriented to the Power of God and the One of Whom the Scriptures testify - Jesus.  This is not simply a wrong orientation of the intepreter but of the interpretation.  Scripture reading must be oriented by the Power of God to the Son of God.  Within this paradigm - a paradigm which the Scriptures themselves give us - the Bible makes itself abundantly clear.

But this paradigm is an unashamedly and irreducibly theological one.  It is the result of exegesis (e.g. studying the verses given above) but it is also the pre-supposition of such exegesis.  Theology is not the end of the process from exegesis to biblical studies and then to the systematician! 

And yet, I have often been in discussions regarding the Old Testament where theologians will claim an obvious meaning to the OT text which is one not oriented by the Power of God to the Son of God.  They will claim that this first level meaning is the literal meaning - one that is simply read off the text by a process of sound exegesis.  And then they claim that the second meaning (it's sensus plenior - usually the christocentric meaning) is achieved by going back to the text but this time applying some extrinsic theological commitments.

What do we say to this?  Well hopefully we see that whatever 'level' of meaning we assign to the biblical text it is not an obvious, literal meaning to be read off the Scriptures like a bar-code!  Whatever you think that first-level meaning to be, such a meaning is inextricably linked to a whole web of theological pre-suppositions.  The step from first level to second is not a step from exegesis to a theological re-reading.  It is to view the text first through one set of pre-suppositions and then through another.

And that changes the direction of the conversation doesn't it?  Because then we all admit that 'I have theological pre-suppositions at every level of my interpretation.'  And we all come clean and say 'Even the basic, first-level meaning assigned to an OT text comes from some quite developed theological pre-commitments - pre-commitments that would never be universally endorsed by every Christian interpreter, let alone every Jewish one!'  And then we ask 'Well why begin with pre-suppositions which you know to be inadequate?  Why begin with pre-suppositions that are anything short of 'the Power of God' and 'the Son of God'?   And if this is so, then why on earth do we waste our time with a first-level paradigm that left even the post-incarnation Pharisees completely ignorant of the Word?  In short, why don't we work out the implications of a biblical theology that is trinitarian all the way down?  Why don't we, at all times, read the OT as inherently and irreducibly a trinitarian revelation of the Son?

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